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Yes it would still be a force play at 2nd base, since the runner going from 1st to 2nd is required to advance (since the runner going to first, has not been put out yet)

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Q: Is it still a force play at second base if the batter reaches first base before the force play is made at second base?
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Related questions

Is a batter out if the first-baseman controls the ball on the ground before the batter reaches first?

no.Unless the first baseman is touching first base.


What is the most steals a team can get in an inning without scoring a run?

Ten - First batter reaches steals two bases tagged out at plate. Second batter does the same. Third batter steals two bases and fourth batter steals one. Ten is the answer but alternatively, first batter gets on and steals two bases (2). Next batter reaches first and steals second (3). Third batter reaches first and now with three runners on each base a triple steal could be executed with the 3rd base runner being tagged out (5). Repeat last sentence, (7). Then the fifth batter gets walked, and a triple steal is attempted. The runner from third gets caught in a rundown. The runner from second steals third (8). The runner from first steals second and third (10). Then one of the three runners now between third and home gets tagged out before the lead runner can score.


Every time a batter reaches first base the next batter hits a double Every time a batter hits a double the runner on first scores Jon reaches first base What can you deduce about Jon?

That Jon will score when the next batter hits a double.


What does fielders choice mean?

The fielder who caught the ball had the option to either get the batter running to first or another runner. Example: With a runner of first the batter hits the ball to the short stop. The short stop choices to throw the ball to second to get the runner out but the batter reaches first base safely.


Batter hits ground ball to 2nd basemen 2nd basemen throws to 1st basemen The first basemen catches the ball with bare hand and tags the Runner with Glove before he reaches 1st base What is the call?

Runner on first is out. Runner on second is safe because he was tagged while standing on second base.


On a dropped third strike with 2 outs runner on 3rd is stealing home and crosses home plate before the batter is put out does the run count?

That depends on how the batter is put out. If the batter is put out by throwing to the first baseman who touches first base before the batter does, the run will not count because the play is considered a force out. No run can score when the batter or another runner is put out by a force for the third out of an inning. However, if the batter is tagged out and the runner from third scores before the batter is tagged out, the run does count because the runner was not forced but instead tagged. Only if the batter runner is tagged out after he reaches first base (in attempt to get to 2nd base for example) does the run count. If the first baseman was pulled off the bag on the throw and was able to tag the batter runner before he reached first base, the run would not count. It is still considered a force play (NFHS Rule 2-24-1). The above answer is incorrect. MLB rule 4.09(a) states: One run shall be scored each time a runner legally advances to and touches first, second, third and home base before three men are put out to end the inning. EXCEPTION: A run is not scored if the runner advances to home base during a play in which the third out is made (1) by the batter-runner before he touches first base; (2) by any runner being forced out; or (3) by a preceding runner who is declared out because he failed to touch one of the bases. Note the exception. No run scores when the third out is made by the batter-runner before he reaches first. Doesn't matter if it's a force or a tag on the batter-runner.


When a batter-runner reaches first base before the ball arrives but misses the base how can he be put out by the defense under NCAA rules?

Let's say that you're the batter/runner in this situation and I'm in the field. You hit the ball to third base and take off for first. I get the ball and through to first. You beat the ball to first but you miss the base. I would have to get you out by tagging you. If you go to second and I don't tag you, then I believe the pitcher can throw to first on the next pitch (As if he is picking off) and you will be out.


If a player from first to second runs into the base before the ball gets there but the baseman reaches for the ball and knocks the runner off the base and falls on him then tags him is he out?

no


If the pitcher throws ball four and the catcher throws to 2nd before the runner reaches is he out?

No, it is simply ball four and the runner is safe and the batter is awarded first base on a base on balls.


If a batter hits a pitch and the ball hits a runner how is it scored?

The play is dead, the runner that was hit is out, and the batter reaches first base and is credited with a single.


Can the last batter in one inning be the first batter in the next inning of the same game?

MLB Rule 6.01(b) states: " The first batter in each inning after the first inning shall be the player whose name follows that of the last player who legally completed his time at bat in the preceding inning. " In other words, if a player is at bat and does not complete the at bat before the third out is made, that batter will be the first batter in the next inning. An at bat is considered complete when the batter reaches base safely or makes an out. For example, a batter is up with two out, the count is 1 ball and 1 strike, and there is a runner on first base. On the next pitch the batter does not swing and the runner is thrown out trying to steal second base, which makes the third out. In this case, the batter that was up when the third out was made will be the first batter in the next inning because his at bat was not completed due to the runner being thrown out attempting to steal.


How often is a run produced when the first batter reaches base?

Every run produced must have a runner reach first base.