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MLB Rule 10.02(a)(1)(iv) states: No time at bat shall be charged when a player is awarded first base because of interference.

THIS IS NOT THE ANSWER AS IT DOES NOT ADDRESS THE QUESTION.

The correct answer is that the batter gets credited for a single. See the following rule:

rule 10.05 a base hit shall be scored in the following cases:(e) when a fair ball which has not been touched by a fielder touches a runner or an umpire. EXCEPTION: Do not score a hit when a runner is called out for having been touched by an infield fly. (in this instance, the batter would have been automatically out on the infield fly rule)

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11y ago
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15y ago

No. In no situation can a batter be credited with a base hit if a runner is forced out.

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14y ago

Yes, he gets credit for the runner on base and batting "himself" in.

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12y ago

No anybody that's on because of an error is an unearned run no matter how they score

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12y ago

If a batted ball hits a runner in fair territory, the runner is out, and the batter is credited with a single and takes 1st base

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9y ago

He does if he can get back and touch it in time before a fielder does. If the runner makes no attempt to return to the base and a fielder touches it and appeals, the runner is out.

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14y ago

yes

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10y ago

no

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Q: Does a batter get credit with a basehit if he misses first base?
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