yes but only if the defence hasent touched the ball yet if they have the the runner can still be counted as a single
It does not matter what the batter did. If the runner from 3rd was in fair territory when the ball hit him -- the runner is out, batter is credited with a single and gets to go to 1st base
If the runner is in fair territory then the runner is out. But if the ball hits the runner in foul territory, then it would just be a foul ball. If the ball hits the runner in fair territory, the runner is out but if the batter is safe to 1st then they would be safe.
If the baseball hit the ground in foul territory, the ball is a foul ball. If the baseball hit the ground in fair territory, and the batter/runner is still in the batter's box when the baseball hits him, it is a foul ball. If the baseball hit the ground in fair territory and the batter/runner is out of the batter's box when the baseball hits him, the batter/runner is out and the ball is dead.
The batter is awarded a single. MLB Rule 10.05(5) states that a batter is credited with a base hit when: "A fair ball that has not been touched by a fielder touches a runner or an umpire, unless a runner is called out for having been touched by an Infield Fly, in which case the official scorer shall not score a hit".
If the batter/runner is contacted by a fair ball when they are out of the box they are out and the ball is dead thus no runners can advance. Given this the answer to you question is no they can not score.
If a runner is touched by a fair batted ball, in fair territory, before passing a fielder, it's interference, the ball is dead, the runner is Out, and all other runners must return to the base occupied at the time of the pitch, unless forced to advance due to the batter being awarded 1B on the play.
MLB Rule 10.02(a)(1)(iv) states: No time at bat shall be charged when a player is awarded first base because of interference. THIS IS NOT THE ANSWER AS IT DOES NOT ADDRESS THE QUESTION. The correct answer is that the batter gets credited for a single. See the following rule: rule 10.05 a base hit shall be scored in the following cases:(e) when a fair ball which has not been touched by a fielder touches a runner or an umpire. EXCEPTION: Do not score a hit when a runner is called out for having been touched by an infield fly. (in this instance, the batter would have been automatically out on the infield fly rule)
When the ball hits the baserunner it is a dead ball at the runner the ball hit is out. The batter is credited with a single. Since the batter is given a single, any baserunner required to advance will advance, however, no runners ahead of the runner who was out will advance: i.e bases loaded, the runner at 2nd is hit by the ball, the runner at 2nd is out, the runner at 1st goes to 2nd and the batter goes to first. the runner at 3rd does not get to advance, he will stay at 3rd, so the bases will remain loaded runners at 2nd and 3rd, -- the ball hits the guy at 3rd base (while he is in fair territory), runner at 3rd is out, runner at 2nd returns to 2nd, and batter goes to first, you now have runners on 1st and 2nd hope this helps
Yes. MLB Rule 6.05(g) states that a batter is out when "His fair ball touches him before touching a fielder". If the fair ball touches the batter before it touches a fielder, the batter is called out.
If a fair batted ball touches a runner in fair territory, it's interference, the runner is Out, the batter is awarded a hit and given 1B, and all runners must return to the bases they occupied at the time of the pitch, unless forced to advance by the batter being awarded 1B.
When a runner is on a base that a batter or another base runner is required to run to, the former is forced to run to the next base. Two examples and a counter-example: 1) A runner begins the play on first base, and the ball is batted fair. Since the batter is required to go to first base, the runner that began on that base is forced to go to second base, and remains required to do so until the batter is out. 2) Runners begin the play on first base and on second base, and the ball is batted fair. As noted in example (1), the runner on first base is forced to go to second. Thus, the runner that began on second is now forced to go to third base. If either the batter or the runner that began on first base become out, then this requirement is cancelled. 3) A runner begins the play on third base, and the ball is batted fair. The runner MAY advance from third towards home, but is not FORCED to do so. That's because the batter is only required to run to first, and there is no requirement that the runner on third leave his base.
If there is a runner on first base and less than 2 outs, and on the third strike to the batter the catcher misses the ball entirely, the batter is still out and the catcher is credited with the putout. If a runner is one first base with less then 2 outs, a missed 3rd strike is not officially recorded as a putout by the catcher as there is nowhere for the runner to go as the batter cannot advance in this situation. The only time a catcher or any other position player can get a put out without touching the ball is in the case of runner-interference - - i.e. The batter pops up a ball a runner (either the batter or a guy from 3rd) runs into the catcher, not allowing him a chance to make a play on the ball -- the runner would be called out and the catcher would be credited with the out) -- another scenerio would be a bunt or swinging bunt where the batter makes contact with the ball in fair territory (not in batters box) -- this would be a batted ball touched by a base runner in fair territory -- the batter would be out, with the recorded out going to the closest position player (in this scenerio, that would be the catcher)