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If the ball lands foul past first or third base the ball is foul regardless of where it rolls. If the ball lands foul before first/third base and rolls fair before first/third base, the ball is fair. If the ball lands foul before first/third base and rolls foul past first/third base, the ball is foul.

If the ball is touched while it is in foul territory before reaching first or third base it is considered foul and vise versa if it is touched in fair territory. Otherwise whether it is fair or foul is determined by where the ball stops.

** if the ball hits any part of 1st or 3rd base it is a fair ball

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13y ago

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No. A ball that first lands in fair territory beyound 1st or 3rd base is considered a fair ball no matter where is rolls after that. However, if this happened in the infield (ie. before 1st or 3rd base) this would be considered a foul ball if the ball stops in foul territory or is first touched in foul territory.

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Wiki User

13y ago
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if the ball is not touch in foul territory and rolls into fair territory and stops or is touch then it is a fair ball. the answer is no.

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Wiki User

15y ago
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It is in play.

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Wiki User

14y ago
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yes

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Wiki User

15y ago
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Q: If a ball lands foul and roles in bounds is it foul?
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