When there are already 2 strikes on the batter.
yes and no. a foul ball on the third strike goes uncaught then it is not a third strike. if a foul ball is caught on the third strike, including a foul tip, the batter is out.
The first two foul balls count as strikes 1 and 2. After that, it is not a strike.
its a dead ball and a strike, but not strike 3, just like a foul.
No, but if it was two strikes, then he bunted a foul, then he would be out
Unless the foul occurs on the second strike, in which nothing is called then yes.
If you bunt foul when you already have 2 strikes, you have just gotten your third strike. This is about the only way to get a 3rd strike on a foul ball. A foul bunt that is not caught in flight is always counted as a strike, even if it is a third strike and thus results in a strikeout of the batter. All other foul balls which, if not caught in flight, are only counted as a strike if not a third strike.
If you bunt foul when you already have 2 strikes, you have just gotten your third strike. This is about the only way to get a 3rd strike on a foul ball. A foul bunt that is not caught in flight is always counted as a strike, even if it is a third strike and thus results in a strikeout of the batter. All other foul balls which, if not caught in flight, are only counted as a strike if not a third strike.
A foul ball never counts as a ball. In Major League Baseball, a foul ball only counts as the third strike if it's a foul tip that was caught by the catcher.
Yes.
Of course, because a foul tip, by definition, is not a foul ball. It's a live ball and it doesn't matter if it's strike 1 2 or 3 (unless strike 3 makes it the third out of the inning). Remember this: "there is nothing foul about a foul tip" www.westmichiganhighschoolbaseball.com
no. because you have to swing for it to be a foul ball .its really a strike
yes