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If a batter is hit by a pitch and the umpire determines he was "leaning over the plate", or "moved into the pitch" then he may not be awarded first base and the pitch will be called a strike or ball

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Q: When can a batter be hit by pitch and not be awarded 1st base?
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Is A batter who walks and continues to second a stolen base?

Yes it is, because he was only awarded a trip to 1st base not 2nd.


Is it a hit in softball if you hit the runner and reach 1st base safely?

If a fair batted ball touches a runner in fair territory, it's interference, the runner is Out, the batter is awarded a hit and given 1B, and all runners must return to the bases they occupied at the time of the pitch, unless forced to advance by the batter being awarded 1B.


Batter awarded first base on balls is running outside the running lane catcher throws to first and hits the runner is the runner out on interference?

nothing, on a base on balls the runner is awarded 1st base so he will not get out unless he goes to 2nd or makes an attempt to 2nd and is tagged out.


23 ways to get to first base?

This is based on the official Major League Baseball rules, available at http://mlb.mlb.com/mlb/official_info/official_rules/foreword.jsp1) A batter is awarded first base for receiving 4 balls.2) A number of infractions by the pitcher can result in a ball being awarded to the batter. If this is ball 4, the batter is awarded first base. Rules 8.01 and 8.02 list illegal actions by the pitcher, including bringing his hand to his mouth and defacing the ball.3) A ball hit into play allows the runner to advance to first base on a hit.4) A ball hit into play allows the runner to advance to first base on an error.5) If the batter or his clothing or equipment is hit by a pitch, and he made an effort to avoid the pitch and did not swing at it, he is awarded first base.6) Interference by the catcher can result in the batter being awarded first base. For example, squatting too close to the batters box and interfering with the batter's swing is catcher interference.7) Interference by a spectator can result in the batter being awarded first base if the umpires believe that the batter would have reached first base without the interference.8) On a dropped third strike, the batter-runner may advance to first base.9) If a pitched ball lodges in the umpire’s or catcher’s mask or paraphernalia, and remains out of play, on the third strike or fourth ball, then the batter is entitled to first base and all runners advance one base. From rule 5.09.10) A particular park may have ground rules that grant a batter a single if the ball is hit in a certain place.11) In some situations a player may reach first base as a substitute for another play who was injured. Rule 5.10.12-23) ...


Minor ball tourney -- batter is awarded base on balls --- runner advances to 1st base and advances to second without stopping at first - is this legal-what if he stops at first and then goes to 2?

yes he can do it


Is it a base hitif batted ball hits umpire in infieldcalled a dead ball?

Yes. Ball is dead. Batter is awarded 1st and all runners advance 1 base. Rule 5.09 (f)


If the base runner gets hit with the grounded ball do the remaining base runners remain where they are?

The base runner is out that got hit with the ball as long as he is in fair territory. At this point the ball is considered dead and the runners would go to the base they should be at. Example: Runners at 1st and 2nd. Guy on 2nd running toward 3rd after ball is hit, he is hit. He is out. Runner at 1st is awarded 2nd, batter is awarded 1st and the ball is dead.


How can a baseball player legally reach first base without getting hit?

The batter can reach on an fielding error, take a walk (four balls), get hit by a pitch, or strike out on a wild pitch and beat the ball to 1st base.


In major league baseball how many can a batter reach first base without getting a hit?

They can reach 1st base via walk, error, hit by pitch or fielder's choice.


Does the batter get to advance to first base if the ball hits the ground and then the batter?

I don't think so. Rule 6.05 (f) states the batter is out if he attempts to hit a 3rd strike then the ball touches him.According to MLB Rule 6.08(b), the batter is entitled to first base when:"He is touched by a pitched ball which he is not attempting to hit unless(1) The ball is in the strike zone when it touches the batter, or(2) The batter makes no attempt to avoid being touched by the ball;If the ball is in the strike zone when it touches the batter, it shall be called a strike, whether or not the batter tries to avoid the ball. If the ball is outside the strike zone when it touches the batter, it shall be called a ball if he makes no attempt to avoid being touched.When the batter is touched by a pitched ball which does not entitle him to first base, the ball is dead and no runner may advance."If the batter attempts to hit the pitch and the ball strikes him, according to rule he is NOT entitled to first base and the ball is ruled dead.


How many ways can a batter in major league baseball reach 1 base saftley?

1. Base on balls 2. Base hit 3. Fielder's choice (the batter hits the ball and the fielder throws to another base, not 1st base, to get an out.) 4. Hit by pitch 5. Error by a fielder 6. Dropped third strike and the batter beats the throw to first 7. Catcher's interference


If a pitcher starts from stretch and comes to the set position runner steals second base and touches it pitcher delivers pitch and it's fouled off does runner go back to first base?

Yes, the runner would go back to 1st base if the batter fouls off the pitch.