Then the runners who are tagged out are called out and the batter goes back to home plate.
A runner must be tagged to be Out if he is not forced to advance as a result of the batter putting the ball into play.
It's scored as a double, out trying to advance!
No. When a batter is hit by a pitch, the ball is dead and no runners may advance. However, if the bases were loaded, then all runners are forced to advance and the runner from third would score.
The batter has either been struck out, tagged out, or flyed out
A force play is in effect when a runner or runners are on base so that a fielder has to step on a base in order to record an out of the runner in question. Here's an example with the Cleveland Indians. Say Grady Sizemonre is on 1st base and Hafner is batting. If Hafner hits a ground ball to an infielder then they can force Sizemore out at 2nd base. A runner is forced to advance because the batter becomes a batter-runner. The runner may be tagged or the next base can be tagged by a fielder.
Anytime a third strike is dropped the runner can advance to first unless he is tagged or the ball is thrown to first before he reaches.
If the runner remains standing on the bag when the 1st baseman touches the bag and the 1st baseman does not tag the runner prior to touching the bag, then the runner is safe and you have no double play. Answer To clarify, once the Batter becomes a batter-runner, the runner at first loses his right to occupy first base and is forced to advance. If he is tagged while standing on the base, he is out. If the first baseman then steps on first base the Batter-runner is also out -- Double Play. BUT, if the first baseman first steps on the base the batter-runner is out and the force is removed. If the runner standing on first base is now tagged he is safe.
no i dont know about in baseball, but in fastpitch softball... the batter would be out
No, once you are tagged out you don't get credited with anything if you are the one at bat. Now if another batter hits the ball and there was already a man on base at first and he gets tagged at 2nd base, then yes the man on 1st base would get the single from his previous at bat If the batted ball was cleanly a base hit and he was thrown out trying to advance past first base then the batter would be given the hit corresponding to the last base the batter reached safely. If the batter was thrown out at second, the batter would be given a single. If the batter was thrown out at third, the batter would be given a double. If the batter was thrown out at home plate, the batter would be given a triple.
No. This would be a fielders choice and would not count as a hit for the batter.
Ten - First batter reaches steals two bases tagged out at plate. Second batter does the same. Third batter steals two bases and fourth batter steals one. Ten is the answer but alternatively, first batter gets on and steals two bases (2). Next batter reaches first and steals second (3). Third batter reaches first and now with three runners on each base a triple steal could be executed with the 3rd base runner being tagged out (5). Repeat last sentence, (7). Then the fifth batter gets walked, and a triple steal is attempted. The runner from third gets caught in a rundown. The runner from second steals third (8). The runner from first steals second and third (10). Then one of the three runners now between third and home gets tagged out before the lead runner can score.
No, once the batter/runner reached 1st he would need to be tagged out if he rounds 1st. He would be credited with a single (if everything else met the criteria for a base hit) -- then if you tagged him he would be out