in the game of Baseball is the batter turned runner automatically out for going into the dugout thinking the play would be made, but the first baseman was never on the bag when the throw was received?
no.Unless the first baseman is touching first base.
It is a balk. Same for the first baseman.
6 players while on the baseball field do not belong to the outfield, this is excluding the batter. The 6 that are not part of the outfield are: pitcher, catcher, 1st baseman, 2nd baseman, short stop, and 3rd baseman.
He might be an awesome batter
baseman,first secon and third baseman, batter,catcher,left and right fielder, centerfielder and short stoper.
If you were to see a P5 that would mean the batter popped out to the third baseman.
if the out would be the third no, it is up to the descrestion of the scorekeeper for example, if there was a runner on third with one out and you bunted the and the third baseman overthrew first, then it would be an rbi, but if the second baseman missed the throw to the first baseman with two outs, then there would be no rbi
If the runner remains standing on the bag when the 1st baseman touches the bag and the 1st baseman does not tag the runner prior to touching the bag, then the runner is safe and you have no double play. Answer To clarify, once the Batter becomes a batter-runner, the runner at first loses his right to occupy first base and is forced to advance. If he is tagged while standing on the base, he is out. If the first baseman then steps on first base the Batter-runner is also out -- Double Play. BUT, if the first baseman first steps on the base the batter-runner is out and the force is removed. If the runner standing on first base is now tagged he is safe.
If you were to see a P5 that would mean the batter popped out to the third baseman. If you were to see an L5 that would mean the batter lined out to the third baseman. P means pop out and L means line out.
No, if there is a runner on first and the second baseman fields the ball and throws it to the shortstop, who muffs the play and allows both the runner and batter to advance/reach safely, the play would be ruled a fielder's choice and an error. It would still count as an at-bat and a non-hit for the batter, just as if the second-baseman had muffed the throw to the first-baseman with nobody on base.
yes
No. A perfect game is no runs, no hits, no errors and no walks. I believe that rule stands even if the batter does not reach base on an error. Opinion .... yes, it's still a perfect game. The definition of a perfect game is one in which no runner reaches first base (any way, hit, error, hit by ball, etc.). On a foul ball error, if the batter does not reach first base (strike out, any other way), he is still just another one of the 27 outs in a perfect game. Yes. The definition of a perfect game is 27 batters up and 27 batters down without a single batter reaching base safely. An error that does not result in a batter reaching base safely has no bearing on a perfect game.