yes
I have heard that you should bet someone the next pitch is a foul ball because odds are over %50. This happens most of the time I pay attention to the count.
I think you're asking, "if the pitcher throws a ball that is waaaay out of the strike zone, but the batter swings at it anyway, does it count as a strike?" The answer is YES - if it were a foul ball it would count as a strike, so why should it be any different if it is put into play?
A foul can count as a strike if there is not two strikes. I f your fist pitch is a foul, that's strike one. If you get a strike first and then foul, that's strike two. Or if you gettwo fouls in a row with no strikes, that's strike one and two. If you have two strikes (no matter how you got them) you cannot strike out on a foul. So if you do foul in that situation, it does not count as anything and your pitch count remains the same.
A foul ball in a two strike count is nothing it count as a strike for the pitcher count but the count will stay the same and no out. In the case of a one strike count or a zero strike count, the fould ball is counted as a strike and the count will be a 1 strike difference. EX: 0 strikes turn into 1 strike 1 strike turn into 2 strikes 2 strikes stay at 2 strikes
it's a no pitch if it does not cross the foul line. if it crosses the foul line it's a ball
If the ball strikes the bat handle and then the hands it is a foul ball. If the ball strikes the batter on the hands he is awarded first base, provided the pitch is not in the strike zone and the batter has made an attempt to avoid the ball. A batter is not entitled to first base if he is hit with a pitch while attempting to hit the ball.
Hitting the cue ball in is a foul referred to as a scratch. The colored ball does not count under most Rules.
When a batter hits a ball but it goes outside the white lines (these line up with 3rd and 1st base)it is called a "foul ball" and it counts as a strike. However if the batter already has 2 strikes it does not count as anything because you can not "strike out" on a foul ball. You cannot have a foul ball on a bunt attempt if you have two strikes, however, as that is considered an out.
If the ball lands foul past first or third base the ball is foul regardless of where it rolls. If the ball lands foul before first/third base and rolls fair before first/third base, the ball is fair. If the ball lands foul before first/third base and rolls foul past first/third base, the ball is foul. If the ball is touched while it is in foul territory before reaching first or third base it is considered foul and vise versa if it is touched in fair territory. Otherwise whether it is fair or foul is determined by where the ball stops. ** if the ball hits any part of 1st or 3rd base it is a fair ball
In bowling, the pins knocked down by the ball do not count.
it depends on the situation. If the count is two strikes then it is an out because if the batter is insied the box then it is a fould ball and a two strike foul ball on a bunt attempt is an out. If there is one strike or zero strikes then the batter can be called out or a foul ball. If he is still in the batter's box and the ball touches him then it is a fould ball but if the batter is outside the batter's box and the ball touches him, then he is out.
YES if you are playing by MLB rules. In Major League Baseball that situation would result in a FOUL TIP, the pitch is considered a strike, and the ball is in play. According to MLB definitions, "A FOUL TIP is a batted ball that goes sharp and direct from the bat to the catchers hand(glove) and is legally caught." If a batted ball takes a "sharp and direct" path towards the catcher's glove and IS NOT caught then it is a FOUL BALL, the ball is considered "dead", and the runner CAN NOT advance. For example, if a runner attempts to steal second base and as the pitch arrives a FOUL TIP occurs, if the runner is not thrown out, a stolen base is awarded UNLESS the FOUL TIP results in a third strike to make the third out of an inning.