second base man- as long as the outfielders throw was decnt and in his range. if not, well the outfielder.
That depends on where the 1st baseman fields the ball. If the 1st baseman can field the ball, throw to second, and have enough time to get safely back to the base to catch the return throw, then (s)he will cover. If not, then it is the responsibility of the pitcher.
That depends on whether a runner is forced to vacate a base when a ground ball is hit. If there is a runner on first base and a ground ball is hit, the runner is forced to run to second base because the batter is running to first base. If there is also a runner on second base, that runner is forced to run to third because the runner from first is running to second. If a runner is not forced to run, they do not have to. If there are runners on first base and third base and a ground ball is hit, the runner at first is forced to run to second because the batter is running to first. But the runner on third is not forced to run because no runner is running to third base from second base.
Two bases from the base the runner occupied at the time the wild throw was made.
Yes, the play ends, the batter is awarded first base, and the runner that was hit is automatically out.
Runner attempting a steal from first, or a runner caught returning to second base.
yes
The fielder who caught the ball had the option to either get the batter running to first or another runner. Example: With a runner of first the batter hits the ball to the short stop. The short stop choices to throw the ball to second to get the runner out but the batter reaches first base safely.
Yes. When there is one or more runners on base, it is mandatory for the pitcher to hold his arms to his side before entering his Setup Stance. When entering Setup Stance, he must hold the baseball with both hands and come to a complete stop before throwing to any base, including pitching. However, if the runner wanted to be stupid and decided to run before the pitcher completes his Setup, he can throw the ball.
No, not unless he's deemed to have intentionally interfered with the ball.
you catch the ball and if the runner has passed a base throw it to the next one.
You can block any base as long as you have the ball, if you do not have the ball you can be called for interference and the runner can have the base.