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If a batter is tagged out going to first are all other runners forced to run?
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
Answer:
Once the batter is tagged out the runner can return to 1st base, however, until the batter is out, the runner at 1st is required to advance to 2nd (if he prefers, i guess he could just stand on 1st base, but he would not be safe, as 1st base would belong to the runner until he is out) ----- now further into question.. the above answer would refer to a batted ball where the batter put the ball in play with a swing or bunt -- if you are referring to a dropped 3rd strike -- if a runner is on 1st and there are less then 2 outs, the batter cannot advance on a dropped 3rd strike, he is just out --- if there were 2 outs in this situation.. once he is tagged out the half inning is over so what the guy does at 1st base is irrelevant
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
Wiki User
∙ 16y agoYes. If the foul ball is caught in the air by a fielder the play is live and the runner may be thown out at first if he does not return in time. If the foul ball hits the ground before being caught, or goes into the stands, it is a dead ball. In either case the player must return to first. He may also tag up at first and advance to second on a foul ball that is caught by a fielder. In addition, if the runner has touched second base and rounded the bag, he must re-touch second before returning to first.
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoYes they can and if they have passed 2nd for example on a deep hit fly that is caught they must touch 2nd again on their way back to 1st. If they fail to do so when they touch 1st base they are out no matter what the defense has done with the ball at that point.
Wiki User
∙ 12y agoOnly if it is within the same play that he advanced to 2nd, however, for this to happen several things would need to take place, and it would make no strategic sense to do it.
1. For the runner to do this, the batter would be required to be out already (or not a runner ---- ie. the guy on 1st is stealing 2nd) otherwise the runner going from 1st to 2nd must advance, as he would not be safe if he went back to 1st
2. The most likely scenerio of this would be on a fly ball caught, and the runner going from 1st to 2nd, would return back to first to "tag up"
With this being said, there is nothing in the rules that states a player cant "go backwards" -- i.e a player gets a double, and while the play is going on runs back to 1st for a single, however, like stated above it makes no sense to do this. Once the play ends, the runner cannot go back to 1st
Wiki User
∙ 15y agoYes. Once the runner that just batted is tagged out there is no longer a force out for the runner advancing to second. Therefore he can continue to second or go back to first.
Wiki User
∙ 14y agothey must go back,dead ball after hitting batter
Wiki User
∙ 13y agono, if there's a runner on first base and the batter gets a strike-out but the catcher drop the ball. he's out because of the runner on first base.
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Do the base runners have to run when the bases are loaded and the batter hits the ball but gets out before reaching first base?
Yes. Since the batter is forced to run to first base the other runners are forced to advance. However, once the batter is put out at first base the other runners may attempt to go back to their original base.
Can a forced runner run back to first base?
If s/he touches Second Base he can't retreat.
Bases loaded Batter hits a weak grounder towards first Pitcher picks up the ball and throws to the 1st baseman who tags runner Runner from first base never runs What is the call?
From major league rulebook:7.03(a) Two runners may not occupy a base, but if, while the ball is alive, two runners are touching a base, the following runner shall be out when tagged and the preceding runner is entitled to the base, unless Rule 7.03(b) applies.(b) If a runner is forced to advance by reason of the batter becoming a runner and two runners are touching a base to which the following runner is forced, the following runner is entitled to the base and the preceding runner shall be out when tagged or when a fielder possesses the ball and touches the base to which such preceding runner is forced.
Is it still considered a force if with a runner on first the fielder chooses to throw to first but the runner is safe but the runner from first falls and the first baseman throws to second base?
Once the batter/runner is forced out at 1st base, the force out of all other base runners is no longer in effect. Therefore, even if the original runner at 1st falls, he must be tagged out. He could, in fact, return to first and be safe there if he is not tagged out.
What is it called when three runners get out in one play?
The rare act of making three outs in one continuous play is called a triple play. There are many ways a triple play can be performed; most of them are done with runners on first and second base. Typically, a ball hit to the shortstop or third baseman is fielded, the runner heading to third is forced out or tagged out, the ball is thrown to second base for a force play, and then finally to first to throw out the batter. Another common sequence (to the extent such plays can be called common) is a line drive to the shortstop or second baseman that is caught without the runners noticing or after they have taken large leads (as in the case of a hit and run), the runners then being forced or tagged out when they fail to tag up.
What is the most steals a team can get in an inning without scoring a run?
Ten - First batter reaches steals two bases tagged out at plate. Second batter does the same. Third batter steals two bases and fourth batter steals one. Ten is the answer but alternatively, first batter gets on and steals two bases (2). Next batter reaches first and steals second (3). Third batter reaches first and now with three runners on each base a triple steal could be executed with the 3rd base runner being tagged out (5). Repeat last sentence, (7). Then the fifth batter gets walked, and a triple steal is attempted. The runner from third gets caught in a rundown. The runner from second steals third (8). The runner from first steals second and third (10). Then one of the three runners now between third and home gets tagged out before the lead runner can score.
A batter hits a home run with runners on first and second but the batter is called out when he touches firstbase and still has the bat in his hands how many bases do the base-runners get?
if the ball is hit out of the park and he gets called out because of that then the runs are forced in beause it was a home run
When bases are loaded ball is hit on ground to first baseman who tags runner out then throws home all runners go back to previous bases are runners all safe?
Yes. If the first baseman tags out the batter on his way to first, the three existing runners can return to their original bases; none can be "forced out."
