0
The infield fly rule is not in effect when there is a runner on first base because the purpose of the rule is to prevent the defense from intentionally dropping a pop-up to get a double play. With a runner on first, there is no opportunity for a double play, so the rule is not needed.
Still curious? Ask our experts.
Chat with our AI personalities
Coach
Fran
JudyAdd your answer:
Earn +20 pts
What happens if there is an infield fly rule with a runner on first only?
If there is an infield fly rule with a runner on first only, the batter is automatically out, regardless of whether the ball is caught or dropped by the fielder. The runner on first can advance at their own risk after the ball is caught or lands.
What happens when a fly ball hit to the first baseman is dropped with a runner on first base?
Nothing in your situation. Only maybe if there is less than two outs and at least another runner on second. If there is less than two outs, the infield fly rule applies. The runner should stay on first base. The batsman would be out anyway. That is the purpose of the infield fly rule. It was put in when Ty Cobb had a similar situation. He was playing short stop. There were runners on first and second. A batter hit a pop up toward him. He yelled, "I got it." The runners stayed on first and second. He dropped the ball. Tagged the runner on second. Stepped on the base, and threw the ball to first for a triple play. Then baseball put in the infield fly rule. If there is a popup in the infield with zero or 1 outs, and runners on base that would be forced out, the batter is out and the runner should not advance.
Is a running out at second base on a infield fly rule if the ball hits the runner while standing on the base?
No, as long as he is on the base he is safe
If a runner who was called out on the infield fly rule passes the runner on first is it a double play?
No, it is not. The batter is immediately out, and he can have no further affect on the play, unless he interferes with a fielder attempting to make a play or assists one of the runners on base.
Does a batter get credit with a basehit if he misses first base?
MLB Rule 10.02(a)(1)(iv) states: No time at bat shall be charged when a player is awarded first base because of interference. THIS IS NOT THE ANSWER AS IT DOES NOT ADDRESS THE QUESTION. The correct answer is that the batter gets credited for a single. See the following rule: rule 10.05 a base hit shall be scored in the following cases:(e) when a fair ball which has not been touched by a fielder touches a runner or an umpire. EXCEPTION: Do not score a hit when a runner is called out for having been touched by an infield fly. (in this instance, the batter would have been automatically out on the infield fly rule)
What is the ruling where the runner interferes with a fielder trying to catch an Infield Fly Rule Pop-up?
The runner is also out and the ball is dead. All runners go back to previous bases.
Can you run on a dropped third strike with the base occupied and two outs?
Yes, there is no uncaught third strike rule when there are two outs. Additionally, there is no infield fly rule when there are two outs. Both the uncaught third strike rule and infield fly rule are only in effect when there are zero or one outs.
Can a baseball player catch an infield fly - where the ump has declared an infield fly - then throw to a base that a runner hasn't tagged up to yet and get a double play?
As soon as the ump calls the infield fly rule, the batter is out, but the runners can still advance at their own risk. To answer your question specifically, no, the fielder can't do that - that is the exact result that the infield fly rule was enacted to prevent! Usually when they call the infield fly rule, the baserunners go back to the bases relatively quickly, because the play is over.
Is a runner out if hit by batted ball while standing on a base?
From the official rule book Rule 7.08: the runner is out if "He is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an infielder. The ball is dead and no runner may score, nor runners advance, except runners forced to advance. EXCEPTION: If a runner is touching his base when touched by an Infield Fly, he is not out, although the batter is out; Rule 7.08(f) Comment: If two runners are touched by the same fair ball, only the first one is out because the ball is instantly dead. If runner is touched by an Infield Fly when he is not touching his base, both runner and batter are out." Rule 7.09 is also relevant. The runner is not out if 1) the ball was first deflected by a fielder or 2) if the umpire is convinced that the ball went through or past the fielder untouched, and in the umpire's judgment no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball.If, in the judgment of the umpire, the runner deliberately and intentionally kicks such a batted ball on which the infielder has missed a play, then the runner shall be called out for interference." However, if in the umpire's judgment the runner intentionally kicks the batted ball, the runner shall be called out for interference. If a runner is touched by a batted ball in foul territory he is not out though.
Is there an actual rule in the MLB rule book that states that a tie does in fact go to the runner?
The rule is rule 6.05 the subsection is (j). Here is what it says, "After a third strike or after he hits a fair ball, he or first base is tagged before he touches first base" In a tie the runner or the base is not tagged BEFORE the runner touches first so it can be interpreted as a tie goes to the runner. But it really is that the base or runner must be tagged before the runner reaches the base. Rule 6 applies specifically to the batter. Rule 7 applies to all runners. Rule 7.08 subsection (e) states that: Any runner is out when He fails to reach the next base before a fielder tags him or the base, after he has been forced to advance by reason of the batter becoming a runner. In this situation, the "tie" goes to the fielder. So putting these two rules together, a tie goes to the batter/runner at first and to the fielder for all other bases. In actual practice, umpires are instructed that there is no such thing as a tie and that they must determine what has happened first. Well actually according to Tim McClelland, MLB Umpire Crew Chief, a tie does not go to the runner, in the rules it states that a runner must beat the ball to the base so in fact the tie does not go to the runner.
When does infield fly rule apply?
If there are less then 2 outs and runners on 1st and 2nd or the bases are loaded. If a ball is popped up on the infield in fair territory the umpire will call "Infield Fly", the batter is out, and the runners are not required to advance, but can do so if they determine at their own risk of being safe or out. The ball is still a live ball in play, and it does not matter if the ball is caught or not. The infield fly rule does not apply to bunted balls that are popped up
Runner on first batter hits between first and second runner is hit by ball running to second how is the batter scored?
The batter is awarded a single. MLB Rule 10.05(5) states that a batter is credited with a base hit when: "A fair ball that has not been touched by a fielder touches a runner or an umpire, unless a runner is called out for having been touched by an Infield Fly, in which case the official scorer shall not score a hit".
