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a golfball!
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∙ 13y ago
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How many dipples on a golf ball?
there are 336 dimples on a golf ball.
Are there 100 dimples in a golf ball?
It depends on the manufacturer. Each company has their own dimple pattern.
Is there a regulation number of dimples on golf ball?
Anywhere form 300-450 depending on your brand of ball.
How many dimples on top flight XL golf ball?
332 hexagonal dimples
What is the answer to Ditloid 336 D on a RGB?
336 Dimples on a Regular Golf Ball (382, 392, 402, 408, 416, 422 are also manufactured)
What is the shape of the dimples on a golf ball?
Dimples are placed on a golfball by a large machine called a Ball Stamper, made by American Industrial Equipment Corporation, which was first founded on February 22nd of 1842 by James Marshall Windham III. The first one could only place 2 of the 336 dimples on a ball in one second. It took almost 2 minutes to place all 336 dimples on one ball! The latest models can put all 336 dimples on the ball instantly, on up to 6000 balls at a time. That's over 2 million dimples at once!
If a golf ball has 336 dimples how many yards should this fly?
anywhere from nowhere to 400+ yards
How many dimple in a hockey ball?
On an average Golf Ball there 336 Dimples. A lot of others have several more.
336 dimples on a regulated golf ball helps in?
This web site explains why Why are golf balls dimpled? Updated 1997 by PEG. Updated 1993 by CDF. Original by Craig DeForest. Why are Golf Balls Dimpled? The dimples, paradoxically, do increase ...www.thebuddhaball.com/dimples.html
Are there 336 dimples on a regulation golf ball?
Between 300 and 420. A Titleist Pro V 1, arguably the best ball on the market has 392 and the Pro V 1 x has 332. It varies between manufacturers.
What is the phenotype of an individual with one allele for dimples and one for no dimples?
This would depend on whether the allele for dimples is dominant or recessive. If the allele for dimples is dominant and the no dimples allele is recessive then the phenotype of the individual would be dimpled. If the allele for no dimples is dominant and the allele for no dimples is recessive then the dimples will not be expressed. If these alleles are codominant then the dimples will be expressed but not as much as in an individual who has both alleles for dimples.
What is the phenotype of an individual with one alleles for dimples and one for one dimples?
This would depend on whether the allele for dimples is dominant or recessive. If the allele for dimples is dominant and the no dimples allele is recessive then the phenotype of the individual would be dimpled. If the allele for no dimples is dominant and the allele for no dimples is recessive then the dimples will not be expressed. If these alleles are codominant then the dimples will be expressed but not as much as in an individual who has both alleles for dimples.
