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The direct effect was that France was washed away and the indirect effect was that England had a war with France an as a result,France was washed away.
No. The French Revolution was not an effect of the industrial revolution. The French revolution occurred due to the anger of the masses against the despotic rule of the monarchs in France.
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The Philippine Islands were a hot bed of revolution long before they had heard of France or the Revolution in France began. Early visitation by the ancient mariners from Asia's mainland insured that likelihood.
French thought that they could be able to do it if America did, but they got their asses handed to them.