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In the original versions of modern tennis, the points in tennis were thought to take about 15 seconds each, so the score went from zero to 15 to 30 to 45 and then "game". However, to keep the number of syllables the same between zero and game, the 3-syllable "45" was shortened to the 2-syllable "40".

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14y ago
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8y ago

It means "Break Point" . When the receiver is one point away from winning a game , it's called "break point".
First point of four has been won,

as in

15 30 40 game

Originally based on quarter parts of clock and was

15 30 45 game

but 45 was changed to 40

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13y ago

Deuce. Then somebody has to win two points in a row to win the game.

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15y ago

it's neither, it's deuce!

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13y ago

forty all or Deuce, both are acceptable

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Q: How did the tennis score move from 45 to 40?
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Related questions

Why tennis counts from 15?

The score in tennis used to be counted on a clock; one point equals 15, two points 30, three points 45. However, after the introduction of deuce (40-40) and ads (ad-in, ad-out, three points was changed to 40 so that when the score was ad-in or ad-out, the hand would move to 50.


How do you find 45 of 40 in math?

45 of 40 = 45*40 = 180045 of 40 = 45*40 = 180045 of 40 = 45*40 = 180045 of 40 = 45*40 = 1800


Why 15 30 40 for a game?

The scoring is based on the scoring rules of real tennis. Real, here, refers to royal as opposed to fake. I real tennis, the scores were 15, 30 and 45 but the last got shortened to 40 in the "new" game of lawn tennis. Read more on real tennis at link.


Why is tennis scored the way it is?

Tennis scoring goes 15, 30, 40. You have to win by more than two points or it is a deuce. Then , whoever gets the next point, has an advantage. When you get another point right after, you've won the round. If not, the score goes back to deuce. That is the first game. When you've done it twice, it is called a set. On the third and final time, it is called a match. If you have won at least two out of three rounds, you've won the entire game. It's very confusing. This scoring system came from France. It is said to come from the fact that a clock face was used on court, with a quarter move of the hand to indicate a score of fifteen, thirty, and forty-five. When the hand moved to sixty, the game was over.With regard to when the game is at deuce: when the game reaches the tie score of 40-40, it is properly referred to as "40-40". Only after the game returns to a tie score from someone having the advantage point, should the game be referred to as being at "deuce". Some unschooled tennis players will refer to a match at 30-30 as deuce. While 30-30, or 40-40 is the equilavalent of deuce, it is not properly referred to as deuce.


What 40 percent of 45?

40% of 45= 40% * 45= 0.4 * 45= 18


What is 45 of 40?

45 of 40 = 1800


How much is 45 percent of 40?

45% of 40 = 45% * 40 = 0.45 * 40 = 18


Did Michael Jordan score at least 40 against every team?

No he did not or he would have 45, 360 pts in his career. but he only has 32,292


What is 40 percent of 45.00?

40 percent of 45 = 1840% of 45= 40% * 45= 40%/100% * 45= 180/10 or 18


Why are tennis points 15 30 40?

Sorry for the long answer but there is some background to this: Tennis was created a while back by the high-class citizens of some country (anyone know?). The high-class citizens wished to keep their game class-specific and therefore they set up the weird scoring in tennis in an attempt to deter the poor from taking up the game. Because the scoring was unusual, the hope was that the lower-class would not be able to understand the game and therefore not take it up.


How much is 45 out of 40?

45 / 40 = 1.125


What is the least common multiple of 40 and 45?

The LCM of 40 and 45 is 360.