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Can a first baseman force out a runner by touching first base with his non glove hand while he has the ball in his glove?
Wiki User
∙ 14y ago
A CATCH is the act of a fielder in getting secure possession in his hand or glove of a ball in flight and firmly holding it; providing he does not use his cap, protector, pocket or any other part of his uniform in getting possession. To answer this question, the first baseman would have to transfer the ball to his hand or glove before the runner reached first base in order for it to be considered an out.
im pretty sure that as long as he put it in his hand or glove it would be an out no matter if the runner made it to the base or not
It would be an out if he were wearing his glove on his foot
2nd thought:
This is an interesting question. I am not sure of the situation, however, you would think that if the ball is caught firmly with the feet it should be ruled an out if the act of catching it was intentional (i.e a man with no arms playing Baseball) -- I just bring this up.. because nobody thought Jim Abbott could play ball with only 1 hand, but he did.. so i am assuming a person who uses there feet for everything else could teach themselves how to play baseball --- far fetched, but just a thought, how how the ruling would really be made
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
Wiki User
∙ 12y agoNo. The base is considered fair ground and is part of the dirt, this meaning that if it hits the base and then caught in the air it is considered a fair ground ball and should be treated as such.
Wiki User
∙ 12y agoThe act of hitting a runner with the ball does not generally qualify in and of itself as an out. If the base runner is running legally (e.g. does not interfere), then there is no out, and the ball is live. However, if the batter/runner is running illegally, such as running outside of the 3 foot runner's lane between home and first base, the batter/runner will be out if hit by the catcher's throw.
If he is going straight to the base, the runner is not out.
Wiki User
∙ 14y agoYes. For a force play, a fielder who is holding the ball can get the out by touching the base with any part of his or her body. Usually the fielder uses his or her foot, but it can also be a hand or glove, whether or not the ball is in that hand.
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoIf the ball hits the runner before it passes a defensive player other than the pitcher, he is out. If the ball has passed another player (like the 2nd baseman) and then it hits the runner he is not out.
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoOnce it hits the base, it is considered a ground ball.
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If the first baseman tags a runner instead of the base is it a force out?
yes it is a force out
Man at first ground ball first baseman tags first runner does not advance to second stays on first is this a double play?
If the runner remains standing on the bag when the 1st baseman touches the bag and the 1st baseman does not tag the runner prior to touching the bag, then the runner is safe and you have no double play. Answer To clarify, once the Batter becomes a batter-runner, the runner at first loses his right to occupy first base and is forced to advance. If he is tagged while standing on the base, he is out. If the first baseman then steps on first base the Batter-runner is also out -- Double Play. BUT, if the first baseman first steps on the base the batter-runner is out and the force is removed. If the runner standing on first base is now tagged he is safe.
In MLB does the baseman need to touch the base to get the runner out?
If it is a force (i.e. there are people on all the bases behind the runner) play, then yes, the baseman needs to touch the base to get the runner out. If the runner is not required to move to that base, then the baseman must tag the runner to get him out. The baseman does not NEED to touch the base to record the out. The defense may tag the runner OR the bag.
Is it still considered a force if with a runner on first the fielder chooses to throw to first but the runner is safe but the runner from first falls and the first baseman throws to second base?
Once the batter/runner is forced out at 1st base, the force out of all other base runners is no longer in effect. Therefore, even if the original runner at 1st falls, he must be tagged out. He could, in fact, return to first and be safe there if he is not tagged out.
How do you get a force -play in baseball?
Lets say there is a man on first base, and the batter gets an infield ground hit that is picked off by the shortstop. The shortstop throws the ball to the 2nd baseman who steps on 2nd base before the runner a at 1st can reach it. This is a force out as the 2nd baseman does not have to tag the incoming runner. If the shortstop caught the ball before the ball hit the ground and can throw the ball to the 1st baseman before the runner at 1st can get back and put his foot on the bag, then that would also would be a force out.
In baseball if a ball is hit to first base and the first baseman grabs the ball in one hand and then touches the base with his glove on the hand that does not hold the ball is the runner out?
YES! Because it is a FORCE out and not a TAGGED out.
What defensive play ends an inning with three successful outs?
A triple play. Ex. Man on first and second, ball hit to shortstop, who tags runner going to third, throws to second for force at second, second baseman throws to first for force out at first.
