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If a runner attempting to steal a base makes the third out to end the inning does the same batter get to bat again in the next inning?
Wiki User
∙ 17y ago
The batter is only out on a dropped third strike when there are less than two outs and first base was occupied at the start of the pitch. With two outs the batter may take first base on a dropped third strike even if it was occupied at the start of the pitch.
Wiki User
∙ 14y ago
Wiki User
∙ 12y agoThe batter or the runner? Either would have to be tagged to result in an out. The catcher (or any player) would have to have the ball and touch the runner from third. If you mean the batter is still in the batter's box and the ball rebounds and hits him then I would surmise that it is a judgment call by the umpire as to whether or not the batter was in the way of the catcher being able to make a play.
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoYes. The game is in play unless someone call time out. Any runner can still advance although if forced, the runner on first or the runners on first and second get free passes. The batter can take his time going to first but all other runners are in play. That's why you never see a catcher trying to catch a the runner going from 1st to second on a steal because on ball 4, if there's an error on the throw, everyone can still advance.
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoNo, under the rules of general Baseball the batter is never required to move from the batter's box on a steal attempt, even if the attempt is at home. Some leagues may require the batter to move for safety though
Wiki User
∙ 17y agoYes. If the batter hasn't been struck out or advanced in anyway, the same batter gets to come back to bat at the beginning of the next batting cycle.
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In the MLB if a batter has a full count with one runner on base and the runner is caught stealing to make the last out what happens to batter?
The batter who was at bat when the out was made bats first the next inning... the out was made by the base runner the batter is not penalize for his out ...( the base runner could have made the out at any base and the batter will bat again )
When a base runner is thrown out for the third out does the batter resume batting when his team bats again?
No because in the 3rd out, the inning is over the team has to go back.
If a batter hits the ball and tries to get the runner at the plate does the batter get a hit recorded?
If a batter hits the ball and a defensive player tries to get the runner at the plate does the batter get a hit recorded?If the official scorekeeper feels that the runner would have been put out at first, it is a Fielder's Choice. If the scorekeeper feels that the runner would have been safe at first anyway, it is a hit.This would be true, unless the runner is thrown out at the plate, then it would again be recorded as a Fielder's Choice.
If an out occurs in baseball not by the batter does he loose his turn at bat?
No. He will get to bat again in the next inning.
Who gets base when batter and fielder touch base at same time?
Not sure exactly what you're asking here. Neither a batter nor a base runner may INTERFERE with a fielder attempting to field a ball. If there's contact without interference, nothing happens. If a fielder is blocking the path of a base runner from reaching a base, the runner is definitely permitted to touch that fielder -- up to and including ramming his elbow into that fielder's neck.
Who is proper batter after 2outs and R2 is hit by ball?
Final answer: In the situation you cite in the Discussion section (R2 going to 3rd base and interferes with batted ball), you are correct: ball is dead, R2 is out for the third out. Yes, the batter (A) is awarded 1st base, and would be considered Left On Base (LOB). The next batting position after A would be first up next inning. Batter A would not bat again. See rules 6.08(d) ("The batter becomes a runner and is entitled to first base without liability to be put out...when-") and 7.08(b) ("Any runner is out when-").See Discussion section for earlier answer and comments.
Does a walk count as a RBI?
A walk-off RBI is when a batter in the bottom half of the last inning of the game (either the ninth or in extra innings) drives in a runner that gives his team the lead. Since the opposing team does not get to bat again (having batted in the top half of the inning) the player's team "walks off" without having made three outs. Further play is no longer necessary.
What could The Kite Runner be renamed?
"There is a way to be good again"
How many hits can you get in one half inning without scoring a run?
My son heard me read this question out loud and immediately piped up with six. Then he said five and went back to say six again. He is not 100% certain, but would love to hear from others on what they think is the correct answer. OK, Crystal. My pipes are warmed up and ready to go. The answer would be 6 and here is one scenario: First batter hits a triple and is thrown out at the plate trying for an inside the park home run. No runners on and one out. Second batter hits a triple and is thrown out at the plate trying for an inside the park home run. No runners on and two outs. Third batter hits a single. Runner on first and two outs. Fourth batter hits a single. Runners on first and second and two outs. Fifth batter hits a single. Bases loaded and two outs. Sixth batter hits a ball that strikes one of the runners. The runner is declared out and the batter is credited with a single. Six hits, no runs.
Can a player who has entered the game as a courtesy runner only later sub in for another player?
On defense, a courtesy runner can sub for any position they want the next half inning thy play (if the coach wants) or just come out of the game. They can't, however, sub in again as a courtesy runner, and if taken out of the game from pinch running (not DH or playing a defensive position) they can't come back into the game.
If a batter is tagged out going to first are all other runners forced to run?
Baseball QuestionIm pretty sure that the runner can either steal second or return to first. What ever is more safe. Answer:Once the batter is tagged out the runner can return to 1st base, however, until the batter is out, the runner at 1st is required to advance to 2nd (if he prefers, i guess he could just stand on 1st base, but he would not be safe, as 1st base would belong to the runner until he is out) ----- now further into question.. the above answer would refer to a batted ball where the batter put the ball in play with a swing or bunt -- if you are referring to a dropped 3rd strike -- if a runner is on 1st and there are less then 2 outs, the batter cannot advance on a dropped 3rd strike, he is just out --- if there were 2 outs in this situation.. once he is tagged out the half inning is over so what the guy does at 1st base is irrelevant
If a hitter gets on base on an error and a run scores does the hitter get an RBI?
Usually, no. But the scorer may award an RBI if, in his or her judgment, the run would have scored even had the out been made. One example might be a routine, but deep, fly ball, where the runner would have scored even if the catch had been made. I think you might be asking this question the wrong way: If a run scores BECAUSE OF an error, then you don't get an RBI. However, it's entirely plausible to get an RBI on a play in which you reach on an error, as above, or an RBI groundout in which the runner would have scored from 3rd but the batter should have been retired. The question of whether you get the RBI is not a matter of whether the BATTER reaches via error, but whether the guy who scores, SCORES because of the error.
