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Yes, but he must first make a bluff to a runner on third--then bluff or throw to first.

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14y ago
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11y ago

Yes you can it just throws the player off

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Q: Can a pitcher bluff a throw to first base with a man on first?
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Related questions

Does a pitcher have to throw to first base on a jump pivot?

Yes.


Can you fake a throw to first base?

Yes. But he has to be careful not to balk.


Who covers first base on a double play when the ball is hit to first baseman?

That depends on where the 1st baseman fields the ball. If the 1st baseman can field the ball, throw to second, and have enough time to get safely back to the base to catch the return throw, then (s)he will cover. If not, then it is the responsibility of the pitcher.


How many balk calls are there?

There is only one call for a balk. When a pitcher is in the stretch and a runner or runners are on base, the pitcher must pause before throwing to homeplate. There can also be a balk called on the pitcher if he makes a move to throw out someone at first base, but doesn't actually throw the ball. (No fake throws to first allowed!) The last reason for a balk to be called is if a pitcher begins to move his front leg towards homeplate, but does not throw the ball to home. (Or simply pitch to the batter). A balk results in baserunners advancing one base.


Does the pitcher have to throw the ball to a base on a pickoff move?

Absolutely NOT. The pitcher does NOT have to disengage the rubber to attempt a throw to a base. There's a huge debate over this, but anyone who tells you that a pitcher has to step off before throwing to a base hasn't read their rulebook very carefully.


How many errors were committed if there is a runner on 2nd base when the batter bunts to the pitcher but the throw deflects off the 1st base glove allowing the runner to score from 3rd?

The official scorer would have to determine if the throw was catchable. If the throw was, then the error would be on the first baseman and he would be charged as such. If on the other hand the throw was a bad one and the first baseman had to reach and could not catch the ball, then the error is on the pitcher. Only one error would be charged even though the base runner advanced two base and scored.


Why is second base the easiest to steal?

Cause it is the longest throw for a cather home and first are both 90 ft awawy and there is no pitcher in the way Cause it is the longest throw for a catcher third is only 90 ft awawy and there is no pitcher in the way


If a player attempts to steal second base can the pitcher turn and throw to second base instead of delivering the ball to home?

If he's already started his motion to home, he cannot stop and throw to second base. That would be a balk. But if he hasn't started his motion to home, he can throw to second base, but he has to disengage from the pitching rubber first.


How far is the throw from pitcher mound to 3rd base?

it's 63.72 ft


How can the word bluff be used in a sentence?

The base of the bridge will be on that bluff.


Can a right handed pitcher pick off a runner at first base without first stepping backwards off the rubber?

According to the rules of baseball if a right handed pitcher is going to make a move to first base while his pivot foot (right) is in contact with the rubber his left foot's FIRST MOVE must be toward first. It is not necessary to step off the rubber but the pitcher cannot raise his left foot as if to make a pitch and then spin and throw to first. What is important to know on this subject is that while in contact with the rubber with his pivot foot the pitcher is a pitcher. once the pitcher steps behind the rubber he is no longer the pitcher. He becomes an infielder! What's the difference? If a "pitcher" attemps a throw to first or third and the throw goes out of play all runners advance ONE base from the base they were on when the play started. When a fielder throws a ball out of play all runners get TWO bases from the base they were on when the play started. As crazy as that sounds, that is what happens all the time but it is called incorrectly. You hear "one base on an overthrow" but the reality is that when a ball is batted and the shortstop throws it out of play the BATTER who started at home plate goes to second. That is TWO bases from where he was when the play started!! In addition when a ball is thrown out of play by an outfielder then the runners are awarded TWO bases from the base they had possession of AT THE TIME OF THE THROW. This would also apply to any throw made by an infielder AFTER all runners and the batter have reached one base safely. (ex. relay throw) ---- I am so glad to see someone get this right! I believe that the popularity of the jump step, which is a quicker, better move, has many people believing that it's the only way the rules allow. But if you watched baseball in the 50's and 60's most righthanded pitchers DID NOT use the modern jump step. They stepped towards first-base while pivoting on their rightfoot never disengaging the rubber!! I used that move for more than 20 years of highschool, college and semi-pro baseball. And I only had a few balks called and they were for other infractions!


How do you steal in softball?

Wait for the pitcher to throw the ball home then run for the next base.